Re: He/she

[mpriestley -at- VNET -dot- IBM -dot- COM]

Jan Boomsliter <boom -at- CADENCE -dot- COM> writes:
>Yes, I'd say that language plays a part in "cultural factors."  Isn't
>that the point of this discussion, that what people are called, whether
>they are even included in the discussion, affects how they are
>treated?

I'd even say it's part of the way they are treated.  In any case,
culture certainly affects language, so I'm willing to buy there's
a feedback loop, and language can affect culture.

This is a broader question, though, than I was asking.  My question is:
how does using "he" as a default pronoun affect cultural factors?
Especially: how much does it promote or contribute to sexism?

>     "... However, I am not
>     convinced that the issue has the profound sociological impact that
>     has been attributed to it.  I am convinced it has _some_ impact,
>     but I'm not sure how much.  The lack of a gendered pronoun in
>     Japanese, for example, doesn't appear to have had profound effects
>     on the role of women in Japanese culture."

>Say what?

Let me rephrase: if using "he" as a default pronoun is a major _cause_
of sexism in our society, then why do societies that don't use "he"
as the default pronoun (Japanese uses gender-neutral pronouns, I believe)
still exhibit high degrees of sexism?

Frankly, there are plenty of answers possible here.  But the very
juxtaposition of gender-neutral Japanese language with decidedly
sexist Japanese culture tends to suggest that language and culture are
not as tightly coupled as language reformers believe.

I hope this clarifies,

Michael Priestley
mpriestley -at- vnet -dot- ibm -dot- com
Disclaimer: speaking on my own behalf, not IBM's.
      Also: apologies to anyone from Japan who was offended by my
            over-simplifying summation.